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Asked: October 31, 20202020-10-31T17:04:13+00:00 2020-10-31T17:04:13+00:00In: random

If we can invent a number [math]i[/math] so that [math]i^2=-1[/math], why can’t we have a number a so that [math]sin a=2[/math]?

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If we can invent a number [math]i[/math] so that [math]i^2=-1[/math], why can’t we have a number a so that [math]sin a=2[/math]?

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